Imagine the US government had repealed Sarbanes-Oxley in 2005 or so.
Is it conceivable that that action would not, now, be universally recognised in public debate as the cause of the financial crisis?
Anomalous Opinions
Imagine the US government had repealed Sarbanes-Oxley in 2005 or so.
Is it conceivable that that action would not, now, be universally recognised in public debate as the cause of the financial crisis?